In pre-cast bridges, one often lays beams over the columns and then places thin pre-cast "pre-slabs" over the transversal spans between the beams. These slabs already contain all the requisite positive transversal (between-beams) steel reinforcement. All other reinforcements (positive longitudinal, negative transversal and longitudinal) are then placed and In-situ concrete is poured over the "pre-slabs" up until the requisite thickness. Steel framing contained within the "pre-slabs" certifies that the pre-cast and in situ concrete work together under ultimate loads. Here's an example:
So, how does one calculate the slab's positive transversal reinforcement? The steel must be stressed so as to create a force couple with the resultant of the concrete's compression.
Now, the "pre-slab" needs to be able to withstand a load equal to its own self-weight and that of the wet in situ concrete. If this were calculated by traditional methods, a certain steel area $A_{s,1}$ would be obtained.
The additional loads (paving, moving loads, etc) are then applied as well once the in situ concrete has hardened. These loads are therefore resisted by the force couple composed of compression of the in situ concrete and tension of the reinforcing steel. If this were also calculated by traditional means, a steel area $A_{s,2}$ would be found.
Now, is the resultant necessary steel equal to $A_{s,total} = A_{s,1}+A_{s,2}$? I was initially concerned that there might be an interference in the compression regions, but given that the pre-slabs are usually less than half the total slab thickness (in the example above, a 7-cm pre-slab supports 13 cm of in situ concrete, for a total slab thickness of 20 cm), I don't believe that'd be a problem.
That being said, I'm not entirely certain of this conclusion and would like confirmation or correction on this matter. This summation of areas means that all of the steel would be stressed below their ultimate capacity in the first stage (such that $A_{s,total}\sigma = A_{s,1}f_{yd}$) and then would reach the ultimate stress under final loads (such that $A_{s,total}\left(f_{yd} - \sigma\right) = A_{s,2}f_{yd}$). Is this fine or is there some behavior I'm not taking into consideration?
Obviously, then there's the case where the compression zones of the different stages interfere one with the other, but I'll leave that for a future question.
EDIT: Here's an example of a pre-slab blueprint, including the steel reinforcement. This case is for the pre-slab including a cantilever, which explains the gap: that's where the beam's transversal steel joins with the in situ concrete. The units are centimeters. The "criss-cross" in the cross-section is a steel truss.
This site describes pre-slabs thusly (according to my rough French translation): "The pre-slab is layer 6 to 8 cm thick, creating a sort of base, whereupon once installed on the site, one must add a compression layer." It also has the following picture of a real pre-slab, where the trusses responsible for certifying that the pre-cast and in situ concrete layers work in unison are clearly visible: