When a column buckles, then yields, and finally fractures fractures, along the most stressed point, this will initially reduce the axial and bending strains along other points. The apparent conclusion would be that the column can only fracture on one point. But is this necessarily true?
It seems to me that this only applies in an idealized scenario, where the column
Has no mass
Experiences no additional axial displacement at its ends when it buckles
Ceases to bear on itself upon fracture.
My argument is that,
Neither condition applies in practice, and bending may continue post fracture
This may lead to a fracture at another point
Am I correct?
I'm especially interested in the role of assumptions 1 and 2, as they are virtually inevitable in practice, even if assumption 3 does not hold up, and the column ends miss each other due to some lateral displacement of the collapsing building.