Let’s analyze a vehicle parallel to velocity and forces applying on it.
The 1st gear has a maximum velocity value after which you can’t accelerate more. It means that thrust force on wheels generated by the first gear’s torque is cancelled out by external forces such as rolling resistance, air drag and other frictions. So net force on wheels is 0, this is why we can’t accelerate more after the maximum speed/rpm of the 1st gear.
When we shift to the 2nd gear, we start to accelerate again, which causes my question. We know that thrust force on wheels generated by the 1st gear is more than the 2nd, because the 1st gear produces more torque.
If so, how can we accelerate with the 2nd gear producing less thrust force than the 1st that we couldn’t accelerate by after some point?
For that maximum velocity value of the 1st gear,
F = m*a = 0 = Fthrust(1st gear) - Ffrictions
Then we will change Fthrust(1st gear) with Fthrust(2nd gear).
However, Fthrust(1st gear) > Fthrust(2nd gear)
So I can’t understand how can’t we accelerate with 1st gear after some point, but we can do it with 2nd gear that produces less thrust. How does 2nd gear beat external frictonal forces that 1st gear can’t beat?