The flexible shaft is a common transmission device used to either reduce tolerance requirements or develop otherwise impossible machines (e.g. mobile rotary hand tools driven by a stationary mounted motor). See, for example, this video. Is anyone aware of a standard "mechanics of materials" level model of one?
For example, imagine an ordinary shaft extending from the origin along the +X axis. If the driver at the origin applies a torque and rotation such that the right hand thumb points into the shaft (vector points along +X), then the loaded end of the shaft experiences a reactionary torque also pointing into the shaft, but at this end it would be in the -X direction. This is the standard explanation for how transmission of work along a shaft balances torques, so that the shaft rotates at a constant speed, and all work transmitted into the shaft by the source is extracted from the shaft by the load.
If we now imagine that the shaft has a section where its longitudinal axis curves with radius R a full 180 degrees, the far end of the shaft (the loaded end) is now facing the -X direction. However, the torque exerted on the shaft by the load still points "into" the shaft body, and this is now also in the +X direction. Both the source and the load are exerting the same +X torque on the shaft.
Clearly, this is not in equilibrium. In this case, it looks pretty intuitive that there would have to be vertical reactions, one at the source and one at the load that are equal and in opposing directions. The moment of these reactions would be the opposite of the total torque on the shaft, which is twice the torque that shaft is carrying, since both the source and the load are exerting the same torque (i.e. in the same direction). So, in the video linked above, if the hand tool is held pointed upwards (180 degrees from the downward driver motor), the craftsman's hand and the motor mount would both experience horizontal forces so that the net torque exerted on the system is zero.
I feel this portion should be uncontroversial. So then the question is, how is this carried through the length of the shaft? More specifically, when we are halfway through the radius (so at 90 degrees), how is the stress carried? The shaft should carry a shear flow to balance the reaction force described previously. The reaction force and the shear force half way through the turn will only make half the torque that the two reactions make (since the distance of this couple is now only half what it is for the two reaction forces). So there must be a bending moment, right? However, the whole idea of the "flexible shaft" is that it has virtually no stiffness in bending, this is what the word "flexible" really refers to in its name. So how does the flexible shaft carry a bending moment?
If my description is not clear, please let me know. If anyone knows of an analysis or can just provide an explanation, that would be great.
It is worth pointing out that my question is geometrically similar to a mechanics of materials example sometimes seen, where two opposite torques are exerted on two opposite sides of a torus (i.e. a "tire" or "doughnut"). The mid points at +/- 90 degrees of the torus carry bending moment. One can picture this by exerting these two torques on an O-Ring and seeing how it bends at the mid points between where your hands are twisting the O-Ring.
Edit: Just to further clarify, I would like to be able to model the shaft dynamics. So basically, if you move the load around, how does the shaft move? I am thinking about it, and for solid / continuous (i.e. non flexible) shafts, there is a relation $J^{2} = I_{x}^{2}+I_{y}^2$, where I is the 2nd moment of inertia and J the polar. A flexible shaft is basically assembled in a special way so that $I$ can be small while $J$ is large, the above relation does not hold. But in order to carry the bending moment created by sending torque through a turn, as I pointed out, there needs to be sufficient $I$. I guess that is the puzzle I am trying to get my head around.