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I have this simple problem and I am wondering if it's wrong to consider v1= v2 =v3 = v/3. "A" is the area. The fluid is air, I am not considering head loss. Thank you. enter image description here

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You need to clarify the problem a bit better.

if you are suck/pull the air at the large cross-section (right of the image) without head losses and an ideal gas that would make sense.

However, if you are pushing the air in from the three inlets you can have an infinite combination of mass flows at the three inlets (and therefore velocities) that would result in $v$.

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without head loss, this is just a mass balance, so yes the velocities would be the same. V1 to 3 = V

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