0
$\begingroup$

My initial question got raised after a statement I read in a book under negative feedback - “It is assumed that the op-amp is not saturated”. I wanted to know why.

According to my consequent research, the gain of an op-amp is 0 when it is saturated. Why is this the case? Moreover, why is this a reason for my initial question?

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

An op-amp operates as an amplifier when the op-amp powered at a voltage between -ve saturation and +ve saturation. This region is called the linear region. When the op amp is saturated then there is no gain. The gain is flat at 0. Hope the following graph will answer your question.

enter image description here

Reference:

$\endgroup$
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.