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My Question:

enter image description here

$$R1 + R2 - 800 - 300 \cdot 4 = 0$$ $$R1 + R2 - 2000 = 0$$ $$R1 + R2 = 20000kN -- - (i)$$ $$ - R2 \cdot 8 + 300 \cdot 4 \cdot 6 + 800 \cdot 1.5 = 0 $$ $$300\cdot4\cdot6 + 800\cdot1.5 = R2 \cdot8$$ $$R2 = \frac{8400}{8} = 1050kN$$ $$R1 = 2000 - r2$$ $$R1 = 2000-1050$$ $$R1 = 950kN$$

$$R1 = 950kN$$ $$R2 = 1050kN$$

Free Body Diagram:

enter image description here

Is the calculations and free body diagram correct?

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    $\begingroup$ I would like to point out that youve done what students often do and not actually drawn all the free body diagrams. Since you skipped drawing them all you now wonder did you do it right. $\endgroup$
    – joojaa
    Apr 30 '20 at 19:00
  • $\begingroup$ Are the calculations correct though? The other free body diagrams the bending moments, and shear force? As i wasn't sure they was free body diagrams. $\endgroup$ Apr 30 '20 at 19:51
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    $\begingroup$ The reason why you also draw those diagrams si that it trains you to be thorough. This is a trivial case but if you even are in situation to look at a more complex case you cant survive without drawing them. But by then you have practiced skill not to do it which works against you... There is no reason why you couldn't draw only the reaction forces at each end and assume the object is a point. $\endgroup$
    – joojaa
    Apr 30 '20 at 19:56
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Your answer is indeed correct (neglecting the weight of the beam). enter image description here

I will recommend this site which i use quite often to solve this sort of problems (it saves me a ton of effort and time): https://clearcalcs.com/freetools/beam-analysis/au

Cheers!

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