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In the solution , we notice that the 2823.6 is the result of carry over factor from BA to AB . Why we dont need to do the same thing for BC to CB ? dd dd

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Because it is an end pin joint, it is assumed that no moment can occur in the joint.

The Moment carried from BA to AB because AB is a fixed joint, and thus incur a moment as a result of the moment at joint B.

Check out the Moment Distribution Method Wikipedia page and look at their worked example, it should help clear things up.

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