0
$\begingroup$

In the solution , we notice that the 2823.6 is the result of carry over factor from BA to AB . Why we dont need to do the same thing for BC to CB ? dd dd

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

4
$\begingroup$

Because it is an end pin joint, it is assumed that no moment can occur in the joint.

The Moment carried from BA to AB because AB is a fixed joint, and thus incur a moment as a result of the moment at joint B.

Check out the Moment Distribution Method Wikipedia page and look at their worked example, it should help clear things up.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.