Something simple is tripping me up in a design, and the problem can be reduced to a simple 'seesaw' setup: a rigid beam with pin joint and a weight hanging from each end. I have attached an image with dimensions and values of interest:
The pin joint is not centered in the beam so that one end is further from the joint than the other. The beam has been rotated to an angle, and the length of each side's projection onto the horizontal is known. My question is this: In analyzing this problem I end up showing that the torque induced by each weight is equal but the reaction induced at $F_2$ by $F_1$ does not equal $F_2$, and vice versa. Have I made a mistake in my analysis, and if so where?
Known: $A=30\ deg;\ R_1=10\ inch;\ R_2=5\ inch$
Given: $F_1=10\ lbs;\ F_2=20\ lbs$
Determine the vertical reaction force $F_{1,2}$ induced at $F_2$ by $F_1$:
1) $F_{1,tangent}=F_1\cos(A)$
2) $L_1=R_1/\cos(A)$
3) $\tau_1=F_{1,tangent}L_1=F_1R_1=100\ in.lbs$
4) $L_2=R_2/\cos(A)$
5) $F_{1,2,tangent}=\tau_1/L_2=100\cos(A)/R_2$
6) $F_{1,2}=F_{1,2,tangent}\cos(A)=15\ lbs$
Using this result of $F_{1,2}=15$ and going backwards yields $\tau_2=75\ in.lbs\neq\tau_1$. So it seems like I made an error, but I can't find it.
To look at it another way, wouldn't this result suggest $F_2$ cannot be greater than $15\ lbs$ without breaking equilibrium. Yet when $F_2=20$ the torque induced is $\tau_2=100=\tau_1$.
And so I keep going in circles. I could really use some help! Thank you for your time.