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Feb 1, 2017 at 19:47 comment added Wasabi @Vitruvius: My graph has $E_1 > E_2$ and $P_{Y_1} > P_{Y_2}$, but that doesn't have to be the case. You could make $E_1 < E_2$, which would also imply that $P_{Y_1} < P_{Y_2}$ (since $u_{Y_1} < u_{Y_2}$). And of course you could make $E_1=E_2$, which would also imply that $P_{Y_1} < P_{Y_2}$ for the same reason.
Feb 1, 2017 at 19:01 comment added Vitruvius Great solution! Thanks for the help! I had pieces of this solved, but this really put everything together. A question though, does your solution assume that E1 and E2 are different? The problem is unclear in this regard, but given the slope in the linearly elastic region of your graph, it would appear so. Also, I'm not sure why Py2 is less than Py1. Can you explain this?
Feb 1, 2017 at 18:22 vote accept Vitruvius
Feb 1, 2017 at 18:10 history answered Wasabi CC BY-SA 3.0